We’ve got a lot going on here at Logos (have you looked at our pre-pub page lately? Zowie!) but the one I’m most excited about is getting ready to ship: The New International Greek Testament Commentary, or NIGTC.
I’ve used Knight’s NIGTC volume on the Pastoral Epistles and it is consistently a great place to go when I’m confused as to what is going on in the Greek text.
One example where NIGTC helped me recently is given below.
I was looking into the creedal/hymn fragment in 1Ti 3.16, particularly the line that the ESV translates “vindicated by the Spirit”. The Greek for that line (NA27) is ????????? ?? ????????. I was wondering about the reason for assuming that ?? ???????? referred to the Holy Spirit as there was no article, which would normally be a clue. I agree with the reading that this refers to the Holy Spirit, but wanted to know the linguistic/grammatic reason.
I was also curious as to why ?? was translated as “by” in this line instead of the typical “in”. After all, the nouns used with the prepositions are all in the dative in this segment, why would the preposition be translated differently here?
So I thought about it and I searched a bit, and then I turned to my print copy of Knight’s NIGTC on the Pastoral Epistles. Here’s what Knight writes:
The vindication takes place ?? ????????. Rom. 1:4 serves as the best commentary on this compact statement (see the commentaries on Romans by Cranfield, Murray, and Ridderbos, ad loc.). In Rom. 1:4 the ?????? would appear to be the Holy Spirit. There, too, a vindication or demonstration is in view (declared to be the Son of God with power) and the means of the declaration is by resurrection from the dead. Likewise Rom. 8:11 speaks of the Spirit of Him who raised Jesus from the dead. If these are true parallels, then here Paul is speaking of the vindication of Jesus by the Holy Spirit through his resurrection. The next use of ?????? in the PE (4:1, without qualification, as here) refers to the Holy Spirit (see also Tit. 3:5; 2 Tim. 1:14; probably 1:7) and not the human spirit (as indicated by ???? in 2 Tim. 4:22), and there is no indication of shift in meaning, which favors that same identification here. If this understanding is correct, then ?? is used with the meaning by, indicating means, in contrast to the preceding line where it is used with the meaning in, indicating place. The nearly identical format of each line should not be construed as requiring the same meaning for each instance of ?? and for each dative. The form is a vehicle for the sense, and when the form will not convey the sense, i.e., in line 3, ?? does not appear.
Knight, G. W. (1992). The Pastoral Epistles: A Commentary on the Greek Text (p. 184-185). Grand Rapids, Mich.; Carlisle, England: W.B. Eerdmans; Paternoster Press.
(Yes, I did copy & paste that from the to-be-released Logos Bible Software edition. Working at Logos has numerous privileges, this is one of the best!)
So Knight answers both questions. Good thing it’ll shortly be available for Logos Bible Software.
Regarding how the Spirit might “vindicate” Christ, I don’t know that the Logos blog is a good forum for that sort of exploration. Good thing I already wrote about it on my own blog.